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This obviously isn't the best venue for a topic of this sort, but any suggestion that the conflict between the Jewish Israelis and the Palestinians is "obvious" reveals that utter lack of education on behalf of the speaker. Without delving too deep in to the absurd over-simplification of "lr63146", her/his comment at least begs the question, Why should an indigenous population (that was by far the majority of the population of Palestine at the time, with roots in the land that extended centuries before the recent Jewish immigrants) give up ANY of their land to a foreign presence? Particularly one that expressed overt disdain and thinly veiled intentions to expel the Arab population?

To the extent that Palestinian Arabs and their neighbors harbored racist suspicions against the Zionists, they must be reprimanded. Anti-Semitism cannot and should not hide behind legitimate political concerns. However, nor should we deny those legitimate political concerns based on our own suspicion of the victims.

So, who is to blame? I say history. Anti-Semitism expelled the Jews from Europe, European nationalism and the Jewish religious tradition gave birth to Zionism, and the decline of colonialism gave birth to the U.N.'s ill-conceived resolution to "divide" Palestine disproportionately.

Zionists had no interest in having Arab neighbors, Arabs were highly suspicious of Europeans stepping in to tell them who owned what. Both perspectives are understandable, but very hard to reconcile with one another.

This transcends blame.